Difficulty: Medium
Average Score: 92%
Simulated
Two days after being admitted with alcohol withdrawal, a client has constant liquid stools and abdominal cramping. The emesis and stool are hemoccult positive. The client is confused and refusing to take oral medication. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Correct answer
C
Rationale
The client is exhibiting signs of severe alcohol withdrawal (e.g., confusion, gastrointestinal distress) and is unable to take oral medications, creating a risk for untreated withdrawal progression, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. The immediate priority is to establish intravenous access. This is a foundational action that must be completed first to allow for the administration of essential fluids, electrolytes, and IV medications like benzodiazepines (which would be the antianxiolytic in A). Crushing pills (B) is contraindicated as the client is refusing and has hemoccult-positive emesis/stool, suggesting GI irritation. A fecal management tube (D) addresses a symptom but not the underlying, life-threatening withdrawal state and lack of medication access.