The 30-year-old has been taking olanzapine for the past 5 years for the treatment of schizophrenia. The client, who has a positive family history of DM, is now overweight but is not showing signs of hyperglycemia. When the client asks about the next steps for treatment, how should the nurse respond?

D Olanzapine will be discontinued and another drug started. A You'll be started on an oral hyperglycemic agent. C You'll need to have a fasting blood glucose level drawn. B I will be teaching you how to self-administer insulin.