Difficulty: Medium
Average Score: 68%
Simulated
A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hours postpartum. The client is Rh-negative and her newborn is Rh-positive. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered by the provider. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct answer
A
Rationale
The correct answer is A because the indirect Coombs test detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In Rh incompatibility, Rh-negative mothers can develop antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This test helps identify the presence of these antibodies to prevent harm to the newborn. Choice B is incorrect because the test is done on the mother's blood, not the newborn's. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the wrong blood type. Choice D is incorrect as kernicterus is related to severe jaundice, not Rh incompatibility.