Difficulty: Medium
Average Score: 75%
Full-length
A 48-year-old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for complaints of irregular menses.
Correct answer
B
Rationale
Irregular menses in a 48-year-old woman is most likely due to menopause, as ovarian function declines between ages 45- Stress lacks supporting data, fibroids cause excessive bleeding, and tubal pregnancy typically presents with missed periods and pain.